week-3tailpiece

(carried over from yesterday)
John ‘whom Jesus loved’ was as much a mystic as Judas if we were to believe the tradition that the latter was a gnostic. The gnostics believed and laid stress on intuitive knowledge as the way to salvation rather than through faith. ( We hear of blind faith. Any fool can have that. But do we hear knowledge being qualified as blind?) When the gospel of John opens with a definition of Logos (cf. The Word was made flesh...) we can assume if John did ever utter these words it was the gnostic in him speaking. Otherwise how did he know it was so?
Lastly by what authority the Church Fathers did settle on four gospels? Would it have, in this age, passed the test under a strict scrutiny in a court of law?
benny